Dec 2023

The concept of Sustainable Development was formally defined in:

1. Brundtland Commission Report
2. Delor Commission Report
3. Swaminathan Commission Report
4. Maurice Strong Commission Report

Answer: (1) Brundtland Commission Report

Explanation: The Brundtland Commission Report, also known as "Our Common Future," published in 1987, is widely recognized for formally defining the concept of sustainable development. It provided a global agenda for change.

Moving from pollution-intensive economic production to environmentally friendly processes is known as:

1. Environmental Transition
2. Technological Transition
3. Industrial Transition
4. Economic Transition

Answer: (1) Environmental Transition

Explanation: Environmental Transition refers to the shift from high pollution and resource-intensive production methods to sustainable, environmentally friendly processes. It encompasses changes in policies, practices, and technologies to reduce environmental impact.

Which one of the following is not one of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)?

1. Clean water and sanitation
2. Affordable and clean energy
3. Clean air
4. Life on land

Answer: (3) Clean air

Explanation: While clean air is a crucial aspect of environmental health, it is not explicitly listed as one of the 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) adopted by the United Nations in 2015. The goals include clean water and sanitation (Goal 6), affordable and clean energy (Goal 7), and life on land (Goal 15).

Decomposers are otherwise known as:

1. Autotrophs
2. Heterotrophs
3. Phagotrophs
4. Saprotrophs

Answer: (4) Saprotrophs

Explanation: Decomposers, also known as saprotrophs, are organisms that break down dead or decaying organic matter, returning essential nutrients to the ecosystem. They play a vital role in nutrient cycling.

Which one of the following statements related to ecosystems is false?

1. All ecosystems have well-defined boundaries.
2. Ecosystem represents enormous contrast in size and complexity.
3. Ecosystem is a unit of study.
4. The term ecosystem was coined by Tansley.

Answer: (1) All ecosystems have well-defined boundaries.

Explanation: Ecosystems do not always have well-defined boundaries; they can be open systems with fluid and overlapping borders. The false statement here is that all ecosystems have well-defined boundaries.

The water component of the biosphere is known as:

1. Lithosphere
2. Atmosphere
3. Hydrosphere
4. Biosphere

Answer: (3) Hydrosphere

Explanation: The hydrosphere encompasses all water on Earth, including oceans, lakes, rivers, groundwater, and glaciers. It is a crucial part of the biosphere, supporting life and regulating climate.

In which of the following trophic levels are quaternary consumers found?

1. Trophic level-I
2. Trophic level-III
3. Trophic level-IV
4. Trophic level-V

Answer: (4) Trophic level-V

Explanation: Quaternary consumers occupy the fifth trophic level (Trophic level-V) in a food chain. They are apex predators, feeding on tertiary consumers.

In which type of forest are hemlock, yew, and maple trees found?

1. Temperate rain forest
2. Temperate evergreen forest
3. Temperate deciduous forest
4. Coniferous forest

Answer: (3) Temperate deciduous forest

Explanation: Hemlock, yew, and maple trees are typically found in temperate deciduous forests, characterized by trees that shed their leaves annually.

Which one of the following is a predator of the desert locust?

1. Calotes
2. White-rumped vultures
3. White scavenger vultures
4. Loricata

Answer: (3) White scavenger vultures

Explanation: White scavenger vultures (also known as Egyptian vultures) are known to feed on desert locusts, among other prey.

Organisms found living at the bottom of the water mass are known as:

1. Nekton
2. Plankton
3. Neuston
4. Benthic

Answer: (4) Benthic

Explanation: Benthic organisms live at the bottom of water bodies, including oceans, rivers, and lakes. They play a crucial role in the ecosystem by recycling nutrients.

Which of the following oceanic zones is rich in species and high in productivity?

1. Littoral zone
2. Pelagic zone
3. Neritic zone
4. Benthic zone

Answer: (3) Neritic zone

Explanation: The neritic zone, which extends from the low tide mark to the edge of the continental shelf, is rich in species and high in productivity due to abundant sunlight and nutrients.

Which of the following is a non-renewable resource?

1. Forest
2. Water
3. Pastures
4. Minerals

Answer: (4) Minerals

Explanation: Minerals are considered non-renewable resources because they are formed over geological timescales and cannot be replenished within a human timeframe.

The total salt content in fresh water is:

1. Below 3%
2. Below 1.5%
3. Below 2%
4. Below 2.5%

Answer: (2) Below 1.5%

Explanation: Fresh water has a total salt content of less than 1.5%, which distinguishes it from brackish and seawater.

Which of the following soils is best suited for cotton?

1. Red soil
2. Black soil
3. Laterite soil
4. Alluvial soil

Answer: (2) Black soil

Explanation: Black soil, also known as regur soil, is rich in nutrients and has good moisture retention, making it ideal for growing cotton.

Which one of the following is not a soil conservation method?

1. Construction of check dams
2. Planting of trees
3. Keeping the soil wet
4. Formation of broad wall along the coast

Answer: (4) Formation of broad wall along the coast

Explanation: The formation of broad walls along the coast is more related to coastal management rather than soil conservation, which focuses on preventing soil erosion and maintaining soil fertility.

Which one of the following is an economic significance of forests?

1. Supporting natural ecological systems and processes
2. Moderation of global climate
3. Protection of biodiversity
4. Deriving products to be used as insecticides and pesticides

Answer: (4) Deriving products to be used as insecticides and pesticides

Explanation: Forests provide raw materials for various products, including those used in insecticides and pesticides, which have significant economic value.

Which of the following statements related to forests is not correct?

1. It is a major source of carbon sink.
2. It prevents landslides.
3. It is directly responsible for vector-borne diseases.
4. It is the greatest repository of biodiversity.

Answer: (3) It is directly responsible for vector-borne diseases.

Explanation: Forests themselves are not directly responsible for vector-borne diseases. However, changes in forest ecosystems can affect the habitats of vectors like mosquitoes, which may influence the spread of diseases.

Deforestation leads to:

1. Increased soil erosion
2. Reduction in the carbon dioxide liberated by plants
3. Increases in the water table
4. Decrease in pollution

Answer: (1) Increased soil erosion

Explanation: Deforestation leads to increased soil erosion as the removal of trees and vegetation exposes the soil to the forces of wind and water, leading to degradation.

Which one of the following species is highest in number in the biodiversity?

1. Plant
2. Animal
3. Fish
4. Insects and microorganisms

Answer: (4) Insects and microorganisms

Explanation: Insects and microorganisms make up the largest portion of Earth's biodiversity in terms of species count. They are incredibly diverse and numerous, playing crucial roles in ecosystems.

Which of the following biogeographic zones covers the largest area in India?

1. The coasts
2. The Western Ghats
3. The Deccan peninsula
4. The Gangetic plain

Answer: (3) The Deccan peninsula

Explanation: The Deccan peninsula covers a large portion of central and southern India, making it the largest biogeographic zone in the country.

Which of the following is a biological hotspot in India?

1. The Eastern Ghats
2. The Western Ghats
3. The Sunderbans in West Bengal
4. Bhitar Kanika in Odisha

Answer: (2) The Western Ghats

Explanation: The Western Ghats are one of the eight "hottest hotspots" of biological diversity in the world, recognized for their high level of species endemism.

Which one of the following is not an indirect use value of biodiversity?

1. Aesthetic value
2. Bequest value
3. Non-consumptive value
4. Cultural and religious value

Answer: (3) Non-consumptive value

Explanation: Non-consumptive value refers to the benefits derived from biodiversity without using the resources directly, such as ecotourism. The other options are considered indirect use values.

Which one of the following is not a non-conventional source of energy?

1. Atomic energy
2. Solar energy
3. Wind energy
4. Geothermal energy

Answer: (1) Atomic energy

Explanation: Atomic energy, derived from nuclear reactions, is considered a conventional source of energy. Non-conventional sources include solar, wind, and geothermal energy.

Which of the following areas in India is considered to be suitable for geothermal energy?

1. The North-Western Himalaya
2. The North-Eastern Himalaya
3. The Western Rajasthan
4. The East Coast of India

Answer: (1) The North-Western Himalaya

Explanation: The North-Western Himalaya is known for its geothermal potential, with several hot springs indicating geothermal activity.

More than half of the energy need of India is met by:

1. Oil
2. Coal
3. Hydropower
4. Natural gas

Answer: (2) Coal

Explanation: Coal is the dominant source of energy in India, fulfilling more than half of the country's energy requirements.

Urjagram refers to:

1. Villages which produce their own required energy resources.
2. Villages in which non-conventional alternative system has been installed by the government on an experimental basis.
3. Model villages were established to create awareness about judicious use of energy resources.
4. It is not related to energy resources.

Answer: (1) Villages which produce their own required energy resources.

Explanation: Urjagram refers to villages that generate their own energy resources, promoting self-sufficiency and sustainable development.

Which of the following is an example of selective destruction?

1. Sea gulls
2. Cheetah
3. Passenger pigeons
4. Crocodiles

Answer: (2) Cheetah

Explanation: Selective destruction refers to the targeted removal of specific species. The cheetah is an example as it has been selectively hunted to near extinction in many areas.

Which one of the following animals is not a part of commercial hunting?

1. Whale
2. Deer
3. Snake
4. Wild Ass

Answer: (4) Wild Ass

Explanation: Wild asses are generally not part of commercial hunting practices, unlike whales, deer, and snakes.

Which of the following is not an example of an invasive species?

1. Water hyacinth
2. Congress weed
3. Sweet pea
4. Mesquite

Answer: (3) Sweet pea

Explanation: Sweet pea is not considered an invasive species, whereas water hyacinth, Congress weed, and mesquite are known invasive species.

Which of the following is an example of in-situ conservation?

1. National parks
2. Zoological parks
3. Captive breeding
4. Fostering

Answer: (1) National parks

Explanation: In-situ conservation involves protecting species in their natural habitats, such as national parks and wildlife sanctuaries.

Which of the following is a non-point source pollutant?

1. Discharge of effluents through chimneys
2. Discharge through pipes from industries
3. Run-offs from agricultural fields
4. Dumping of toxins in a confined area

Answer: (3) Run-offs from agricultural fields

Explanation: Non-point source pollutants come from diffuse sources, such as agricultural runoff, rather than a single, identifiable source.

Which of the following is not a primary pollutant?

1. Carbon monoxide
2. Carbon dioxide
3. Sulphur dioxide
4. Sulphuric acid

Answer: (4) Sulphuric acid

Explanation: Sulphuric acid is a secondary pollutant, formed from the primary pollutant sulphur dioxide through chemical reactions in the atmosphere.

Standard level of RSPM in India is:

1. 50 microgram per cubic metre
2. 60 microgram per cubic metre
3. 40 microgram per cubic metre
4. 30 microgram per cubic metre

Answer: (4) 30 microgram per cubic metre

Explanation: The standard level of Respirable Suspended Particulate Matter (RSPM) in India is set at 30 micrograms per cubic meter to protect public health.

Coliform can be detected by conducting:

1. MPN test
2. TDS test
3. BOD test
4. COD test

Answer: (1) MPN test

Explanation: The Most Probable Number (MPN) test is used to estimate the concentration of coliform bacteria in water samples.

Which one of the following is not a waste minimisation method?

1. Process modification
2. Waste segregation
3. Recycling of waste
4. Waste concentration

Answer: (4) Waste concentration

Explanation: Waste concentration is not a method for minimizing waste. Instead, it involves the process of reducing the volume of waste, often through physical or chemical processes.

Which of the following is a biological treatment method of waste?

1. Incineration
2. Solidification
3. Digestion
4. Solution

Answer: (3) Digestion

Explanation: Digestion, particularly anaerobic digestion, is a biological treatment method where microorganisms break down organic waste, producing biogas as a byproduct.

The best way to dispose of nuclear waste is:

1. Incineration
2. Underground disposal
3. Dumping at sea
4. Landfill disposal

Answer: (2) Underground disposal

Explanation: Underground disposal in specially designed facilities is considered the safest and most effective method for the long-term management of nuclear waste.

Which of the following is not a Greenhouse Gas?

1. Carbon dioxide
2. Methane
3. Sulphur dioxide
4. Chlorofluorocarbon

Answer: (3) Sulphur dioxide

Explanation: Sulphur dioxide is not a greenhouse gas. It primarily contributes to acid rain. Greenhouse gases include carbon dioxide, methane, and chlorofluorocarbons.

Which one of the following is not one of the eight missions of the National Action Plan on climate change?

1. National water mission
2. National mission for green India
3. National mission for sustainable agriculture
4. National rural health mission

Answer: (4) National rural health mission

Explanation: The National Rural Health Mission is not part of the eight missions of the National Action Plan on Climate Change. The plan includes missions focused on water, green India, and sustainable agriculture.

The ozone layer in the atmosphere is generally found in:

1. Upper layer of the stratosphere
2. Upper layer of the troposphere
3. Upper layer of the mesosphere
4. Upper layer of the ionosphere

Answer: (1) Upper layer of the stratosphere

Explanation: The ozone layer is located in the stratosphere, where it absorbs the majority of the sun's harmful ultraviolet radiation.

The principal bench of the National Green Tribunal is located at:

1. New Delhi
2. Mumbai
3. Kolkata
4. Chennai

Answer: (1) New Delhi

Explanation: The principal bench of the National Green Tribunal is located in New Delhi, which serves as the main judicial body for addressing environmental issues in India.

The Montreal Protocol on Substances that deplete the ozone layer was agreed upon by nations in:

1. 1985
2. 1987
3. 1989
4. 1991

Answer: (2) 1987

Explanation: The Montreal Protocol was signed in 1987, aimed at phasing out the production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances.

The Basel Convention is related to:

1. Biodiversity
2. Ozone layer depletion
3. Chemicals and hazardous wastes
4. Climate change

Answer: (3) Chemicals and hazardous wastes

Explanation: The Basel Convention focuses on the control of transboundary movements of hazardous wastes and their disposal.

Which of the following diseases is not due to genetic influence?

1. Haemophilia
2. Sickle cell anaemia
3. Down’s syndrome
4. Schizophrenia

Answer: (4) Schizophrenia

Explanation: Schizophrenia is a complex mental disorder influenced by both genetic and environmental factors. The other diseases listed are primarily genetic disorders.

Match the following and find out the correct alternatives given below:

| Category | Name of the hazard | |————–|————————| | (a) Atmospheric | (i) Forest fire | | (b) Biological | (ii) Drought | | (c) Geological | (iii) Heat wave | | (d) Hydrological| (iv) Landslides |

Codes:

1. (a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii)
2. (a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii)
3. (a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv)
4. (a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i)

Answer: (2) (a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii)

Explanation: Matching the hazards correctly:

• Atmospheric: Heat wave
• Biological: Forest fire
• Geological: Landslides
• Hydrological: Drought

Which of the following regions falls under high seismic zones in India?

1. Coastal Odisha
2. Rann of Kachchh
3. Eastern Rajasthan
4. Bundelkhand

Answer: (2) Rann of Kachchh

Explanation: The Rann of Kachchh is a high seismic zone due to its proximity to the active tectonic boundary between the Indian and Eurasian plates.

What could be the population of the world by 2100?

1. 11.2 billion
2. 11.8 billion
3. 13.2 billion
4. 13.8 billion

Answer: (1) 11.2 billion

Explanation: According to projections by various organizations, the world population is expected to be around 11.2 billion by the year 2100.

Which of the following is not an ENVIS centre?

1. National Institute of Occupational Health (NIOH), Ahmedabad
2. Centre for Theoretical Studies (CTS), Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru
3. All India Institute of Medical Sciences, New Delhi
4. Industrial Toxicology Research Centre (ITRC), Lucknow

Answer: (2) Centre for Theoretical Studies (CTS), Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru

Explanation: The Centre for Theoretical Studies (CTS) at the Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru, is not designated as an ENVIS centre.

Which one of the following views towards nature believes that all organisms on the Earth have values and rights?

1. Anthropocentrism
2. Ecocentrism
3. Ecofeminism
4. Stewardship

Answer: (2) Ecocentrism

Explanation: Ecocentrism is an environmental philosophy that recognizes the intrinsic value and rights of all living organisms and their natural environments.

Using English material to communicate to non-English speaking communities is an example of:

1. Product inequity
2. Geographical inequity
3. Social inequity
4. Economic inequity

Answer: (3) Social inequity

Explanation: Using English materials to communicate with non-English speaking communities can lead to social inequity, as it can marginalize those who do not understand English, limiting their access to information and resources.