State whether the following statements True or False? Justify your answers:
a) The function ||*||\|\cdot\| defined on R^(n)\mathbb{R}^n as:
||x||=sum_(j=1)^(n)|a_(j)|” for “x=(a,a_(2),dots,a_(n))inR^(n)\|x\|=\sum_{j=1}^n\left|a_j\right| \text { for } x=\left(a, a_2, \ldots, a_n\right) \in \mathbb{R}^n
is a norm.
Answer:
Let’s determine whether the function ||*||\|\cdot\| defined on R^(n)\mathbb{R}^n by ||x||=sum_(j=1)^(n)|a_(j)|\|x\| = \sum_{j=1}^n |a_j| for x=(a_(1),a_(2),dots,a_(n))x = (a_1, a_2, \ldots, a_n) is a norm. A norm must satisfy three properties: positivity (including ||x||=0\|x\| = 0 if and only if x=0x = 0), scalability (homogeneity), and the triangle inequality. We’ll check each briefly to see if this holds.
If ||x||=0\|x\| = 0, then sum_(j=1)^(n)|a_(j)|=0\sum_{j=1}^n |a_j| = 0, and since each |a_(j)| >= 0|a_j| \geq 0, we must have |a_(j)|=0|a_j| = 0 for all jj, so a_(j)=0a_j = 0, hence x=(0,0,dots,0)x = (0, 0, \ldots, 0).
If x=0x = 0, then ||x||=sum_(j=1)^(n)|0|=0\|x\| = \sum_{j=1}^n |0| = 0.
This holds.
2. Scalability:
For c inRc \in \mathbb{R} and x inR^(n)x \in \mathbb{R}^n, compute:
using the triangle inequality for absolute values in R\mathbb{R}: |a_(j)+b_(j)| <= |a_(j)|+|b_(j)||a_j + b_j| \leq |a_j| + |b_j|. This holds.
All three properties are satisfied, so the statement is true. This is the ℓ^(1)\ell^1-norm on R^(n)\mathbb{R}^n.
Justification: The function satisfies positivity (||x||=0\|x\| = 0 iff x=0x = 0), scalability (||cx||=|c|||x||\|c x\| = |c| \|x\|), and the triangle inequality (||x+y|| <= ||x||+||y||\|x + y\| \leq \|x\| + \|y\|), as shown above. Thus, it is a norm.
b) quadC_(0)\quad C_0 is a Banach space.
Answer:
To determine whether C_(0)C_0 is a Banach space, we first need to clarify what C_(0)C_0 denotes, as it’s not explicitly defined in the question. In mathematical contexts, C_(0)C_0 typically refers to the space C_(0)(R)C_0(\mathbb{R}), the space of continuous functions on R\mathbb{R} that vanish at infinity (i.e., f(x)rarr0f(x) \to 0 as |x|rarr oo|x| \to \infty), equipped with the supremum norm ||f||_(oo)=s u p_(x inR)|f(x)|\|f\|_\infty = \sup_{x \in \mathbb{R}} |f(x)|. A Banach space is a complete normed vector space, so we’ll check if C_(0)(R)C_0(\mathbb{R}) with this norm is complete. Let’s assume this standard interpretation and proceed.
Proof of Truth:
Vector Space:C_(0)(R)C_0(\mathbb{R}) is a vector space under pointwise addition and scalar multiplication, and if f,g inC_(0)(R)f, g \in C_0(\mathbb{R}), then f+gf + g and cfc f (for c inRc \in \mathbb{R} or C\mathbb{C}) vanish at infinity, as |f(x)|+|g(x)|rarr0|f(x)| + |g(x)| \to 0 and |c||f(x)|rarr0|c| |f(x)| \to 0.
Normed Space: The supremum norm is well-defined, since continuous functions vanishing at infinity are bounded (if |f(x)|↛0|f(x)| \not\to 0, there’s a sequence x_(n)rarr oox_n \to \infty with |f(x_(n))| >= epsilon|f(x_n)| \geq \epsilon, contradicting the definition).
Completeness: Take a Cauchy sequence {f_(n)}\{ f_n \} in C_(0)(R)C_0(\mathbb{R}): for every epsilon > 0\epsilon > 0, there exists NN such that for m,n > Nm, n > N, ||f_(n)-f_(m)||_(oo)=s u p _(x)|f_(n)(x)-f_(m)(x)| < epsilon\|f_n – f_m\|_\infty = \sup_x |f_n(x) – f_m(x)| < \epsilon. For each fixed xx, {f_(n)(x)}\{ f_n(x) \} is a Cauchy sequence in R\mathbb{R} or C\mathbb{C}, which is complete, so f_(n)(x)rarr f(x)f_n(x) \to f(x) pointwise. Since f_(n)f_n is Cauchy in the sup norm, f_(n)f_n converges uniformly to ff (standard result: uniform limit of continuous functions is continuous). Now, f inC_(0)(R)f \in C_0(\mathbb{R}): given epsilon > 0\epsilon > 0, choose NN so ||f_(n)-f_(m)||_(oo) < epsilon//2\|f_n – f_m\|_\infty < \epsilon/2 for m,n > Nm, n > N, and since f_(N)inC_(0)f_N \in C_0, there’s a compact KK such that |f_(N)(x)| < epsilon//2|f_N(x)| < \epsilon/2 for x!in Kx \notin K. Then, |f(x)| <= |f(x)-f_(N)(x)|+|f_(N)(x)| < epsilon//2+epsilon//2=epsilon|f(x)| \leq |f(x) – f_N(x)| + |f_N(x)| < \epsilon/2 + \epsilon/2 = \epsilon outside KK, so f inC_(0)(R)f \in C_0(\mathbb{R}).
Thus, C_(0)(R)C_0(\mathbb{R}) is complete and a Banach space. The statement is true.
c) If AA is the right shift operator on l^(2)l^2, then the eigen spectrum is non-empty.
Answer:
Let’s determine whether the statement “If AA is the right shift operator on ℓ^(2)\ell^2, then the eigen spectrum is non-empty” is true. The eigen spectrum typically refers to the set of eigenvalues, i.e., lambda inC\lambda \in \mathbb{C} such that Ax=lambda xA x = \lambda x for some non-zero x inℓ^(2)x \in \ell^2. We’ll define the operator, analyze its eigenvalues, and justify the conclusion.
The right shift operator AA on ℓ^(2)={(x_(1),x_(2),x_(3),dots)∣x_(n)inC,sum|x_(n)|^(2) < oo}\ell^2 = \{ (x_1, x_2, x_3, \dots) \mid x_n \in \mathbb{C}, \sum |x_n|^2 < \infty \} is defined by:
so x_(1)=0x_1 = 0, x_(2)=0x_2 = 0, etc., again x=0x = 0, no eigenvector. The point spectrum (eigenvalues) is empty.
Spectrum vs. Eigen Spectrum:
The spectrum sigma(A)={lambda∣A-lambda I” is not invertible”}\sigma(A) = \{ \lambda \mid A – \lambda I \text{ is not invertible} \} is the unit disk |lambda| <= 1|\lambda| \leq 1 (since A^(**)A^* is the left shift, and residual spectrum analysis shows this), but eigenvalues are a subset. The statement specifies “eigen spectrum,” meaning point spectrum, which is empty.
Conclusion: The statement is false.
Justification: For Ax=lambda xA x = \lambda x, lambdax_(1)=0\lambda x_1 = 0 forces x_(1)=0x_1 = 0 if lambda!=0\lambda \neq 0, then x_(n)=0x_n = 0 inductively, contradicting x!=0x \neq 0. No lambda\lambda yields a non-zero eigenvector, so the eigen spectrum is empty. Example: ℓ^(2)\ell^2 with right shift has no eigenvalues.
d) If a normed linear space is reflexive, then so is its dual space.
Answer:
Let’s evaluate the statement: “If a normed linear space is reflexive, then so is its dual space.” A normed linear space XX is reflexive if the canonical embedding J:X rarrX^(****)J: X \to X^{**}, defined by J(x)(f)=f(x)J(x)(f) = f(x) for f inX^(**)f \in X^*, is surjective (and thus an isometric isomorphism in Banach spaces, since it’s always injective). Here, X^(**)X^* is the dual space (continuous linear functionals), and X^(****)X^{**} is the double dual. We need to check if XX being reflexive implies X^(**)X^* is reflexive, i.e., J:X^(**)rarrX^(******)J: X^* \to X^{***} is surjective.
Analysis:
In a reflexive Banach space XX, X~=X^(****)X \cong X^{**} via JJ.
The dual X^(**)X^* is a Banach space (complete since XX is normed), and its dual is X^(******)X^{***}. Reflexivity of X^(**)X^* means X^(**)~=X^(******)X^* \cong X^{***}.
Since XX is reflexive, X^(****)~=XX^{**} \cong X, and X^(******)=(X^(**))^(****)X^{***} = (X^*)^{**}. We need to determine if X^(**)X^* maps onto X^(******)X^{***}.
Key Insight:
For Banach spaces, a deep result (e.g., from functional analysis) states that if XX is reflexive, then X^(**)X^* is reflexive. Why? If X~=X^(****)X \cong X^{**}, the dual of X^(**)X^* is X^(******)X^{***}, and since X^(**)X^* is a Banach space, its reflexivity hinges on the bidual. The map J:X rarrX^(****)J: X \to X^{**} being an isomorphism implies X^(**)~=(X^(****))^(**)X^* \cong (X^{**})^*, and taking duals, X^(******)~=(X^(**))^(****)X^{***} \cong (X^*)^{**}. Reflexivity is preserved under duality in this context.
Short Proof (True):
If XX is reflexive, J:X rarrX^(****)J: X \to X^{**} is an isomorphism. Then X^(**)~=(X^(****))^(**)X^* \cong (X^{**})^*, and X^(******)~=(X^(**))^(****)X^{***} \cong (X^*)^{**}. Since X^(**)X^* is Banach, and reflexivity of XX implies the dual structure aligns (via isomorphism), X^(**)~=(X^(**))^(****)X^* \cong (X^*)^{**}, so X^(**)X^* is reflexive.
Example Check:
ℓ^(2)\ell^2 is reflexive, and (ℓ^(2))^(**)~=ℓ^(2)(\ell^2)^* \cong \ell^2 is also reflexive.
Finite-dimensional spaces are reflexive, and their duals are too.
No counterexamples exist in Banach spaces. The statement is true.
Justification: If XX is reflexive, X~=X^(****)X \cong X^{**}, and duality preserves reflexivity: X^(**)~=(X^(**))^(****)X^* \cong (X^*)^{**}, as the canonical map is surjective. Thus, X^(**)X^* is reflexive.
e) If a normed linear space XX is finite dimensional, then so is X^(‘)X^{\prime}.
Answer:
Let’s evaluate the statement: “If a normed linear space XX is finite dimensional, then so is X^(‘)X’.” Here, X^(‘)X’ denotes the dual space of XX, the space of all continuous linear functionals from XX to its scalar field (typically R\mathbb{R} or C\mathbb{C}). We need to determine if finite dimensionality of XX implies finite dimensionality of X^(‘)X’, and justify it concisely.
Analysis:
A normed linear space XX of finite dimension, say dim X=n\dim X = n, has a basis {e_(1),e_(2),dots,e_(n)}\{ e_1, e_2, \ldots, e_n \}.
The dual space X^(‘)X’ consists of all linear functionals f:X rarrKf: X \to \mathbb{K} (where K=R\mathbb{K} = \mathbb{R} or C\mathbb{C}), and continuity is automatic in finite dimensions since all linear functionals on a finite-dimensional normed space are bounded.
Define the dual basis {e_(1)^(**),e_(2)^(**),dots,e_(n)^(**)}\{ e_1^*, e_2^*, \ldots, e_n^* \} where e_(i)^(**)(e_(j))=delta_(ij)e_i^*(e_j) = \delta_{ij} (Kronecker delta). For any x=sum_(i=1)^(n)a_(i)e_(i)x = \sum_{i=1}^n a_i e_i, we have e_(i)^(**)(x)=a_(i)e_i^*(x) = a_i, and any functional f inX^(‘)f \in X’ is f=sum_(i=1)^(n)f(e_(i))e_(i)^(**)f = \sum_{i=1}^n f(e_i) e_i^*.
Proof (True):
If dim X=n < oo\dim X = n < \infty, the dual basis {e_(1)^(**),dots,e_(n)^(**)}\{ e_1^*, \ldots, e_n^* \} spans X^(‘)X’, and it’s linearly independent (if sumc_(i)e_(i)^(**)=0\sum c_i e_i^* = 0, apply to e_(j)e_j to get c_(j)=0c_j = 0). Thus, dim X^(‘)=n < oo\dim X’ = n < \infty, so X^(‘)X’ is finite dimensional.
Example:
For X=R^(2)X = \mathbb{R}^2 with Euclidean norm, X^(‘)~=R^(2)X’ \cong \mathbb{R}^2 (e.g., via f(x,y)=ax+byf(x, y) = ax + by), and dim X^(‘)=2\dim X’ = 2.
The statement is true.
Justification: If XX is finite dimensional with dim X=n\dim X = n, the dual space X^(‘)X’ has a basis of size nn, so dim X^(‘)=n < oo\dim X’ = n < \infty, making X^(‘)X’ finite dimensional.